Q&A and discussion on Angularity.
4 posts • Page 1 of 1
I have Jupiter conjunct the descendant ecliptically, and this conjunction becomes partile when its true proximity is observed mundanely. I have Pluto nearly partile conjunct the same angle mundanely, and configured in a partile mundane conjunction with Jupiter. But why, in spite of these things, does the angularity of Pluto not show ecliptically when it was that close to Jupiter, and why is there no ecliptic aspect between the two if they were in reality conjunct? How can two planets be on the same angle within less than a degree of one another without forming an ecliptic aspect?
Because the angularity isn't measured in ecliptical longitude.
Let me take and extreme example. Chicago is 41N51, 87W39'. Rome is 41N54, 12E29. Chicago and Rome have the same latitude within 0°02' and are 100°08' apart in longitude.
So, how can two cities be on the same exact latitude within 0°02' of one another without forming an aspect in longitude?
In my example, the two coordinates are at right angles to each other, so it's extreme. But in your example the plane of the horizon and the plane of the ecliptic are still slanted to each other (by about a third that much), and the principle is the same.
Your Pluto is 14° north of the ecliptic. Your Jupiter is less than 1° north.
Jim responded:sotonye wrote:
How can two planets be on the same angle within less than a degree of one another without forming an ecliptic aspect?
And this is why Cyril Fagan invented/developed the Mundoscope, so a Sidereal Astrologer who understands the importance of angularity in a chart can tell the true orb distance of a planet from a chart angle.Because the angularity isn't measured in ecliptical longitude.
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